unresolved In section 21.3, Keynes argues that changes in the quantity of money effect price levels by first impacting the wage-unit as well as the volume of employment, but I do not understand how.
He also goes on to argue that much of economic discourse is treated in an inappropriately mathematical fashion, trying to impose rigid axiomatic logic onto a fluid and complex social system which (and I am extrapolating here) exhibits varying degrees of self-awareness and self-referentiality.